Entrance sample paper for Medical

ENTRANCE EXAM (MEDICAL) SAMPLE PAPER FOR MOVING CLASS XI (ACADEMIC SESSION-2018-19) Time : 3 Hours

Maximum Marks : 300

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS (i)

The The ques questio tion n pape paperr has has 15 pri print nted ed pag pages es exc exclu ludin ding g Ans Answe werr Sheet Sheet.. Plea Please se ens ensur ure e that that the the cop copy y of the question paper you have received contains all pages.

(ii)

The The ques questio tion n pape paperr con conta tains ins 100 100 ques questio tions ns.. The The Que Quest stion ion pape paperr con consi sist sts s of 4 PARTS. Q .No.

1 to 25 26 to 50 51 to 80 81 to 100

Su bje c t

Nature Nature o f Questions

PART-A PHYSICS PART-B CHEMISTRY PART-C BIOLOGY PART-D MENTAL ABILITY Tota l

SCQ

No. of Questions

M a rk s

Nega tiv e

T ota l

25

3

0

75

25

3

0

75

30

3

0

90

20

3

0

60

1 00

Tota l

30 0

(vi) (vi)

Each Each ques questi tion on cont contai ains ns four four alte altern rnat ativ ives es out out of of whic which h only only ONE is correct.

(v) (v)

Indica Indicate te the the corr correct ect answe answerr for for each each ques question tion by filling filling appr appropr opriat iate e bubble bubble in your your answe answerr sheet sheet..

(vi) (vi)

For rough rough work work,, use use the the space space provid provided ed at at the the botto bottom m of each each page. page. No ext extra ra shee sheett will will be be provi provided ded for rough work.

(vii) (vii)

Use Use of of Calc Calculat ulator or,, Log Log Table, able, Slide Slide Rule Rule and and Mobil Mobile e is not allowe allowed. d.

Name of the candidate

Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them.

I have verified all the information filled in by the candidate.

.......................................................... .......................................................... Signature of the Candidate

............................................................ ............................................................ Signature of the invigilator

PART-A (PHYSICS) 1.

A man running with with a uniform uniform speed ’u’ on a straight road observes a stationary stationary bus at a distance ’d’ ahead of him. At that instant, the bus starts with an acceleration ’a’. The condition condition that he would be able to catch the bus is (1) d 

2.

(2) d 

a

u2

(3) d 

2a

u2

(4) d 

3a

u2 4a

A ball ball is thrown thrown vertically vertically upwards upwards with a given given velocity velocity ’u’ such that it rises for T seconds (T > 1). What is the distance traversed by the ball during the last one second of ascent (in meters)? (Acceleration due to gravity is g m/s (2)) (1)

3.

u2

1

gT 2

(2)

T 

1

g[ T 2



( T  1) 2 ]

(3)

g

(4)

1

g[T 2  (T  1) 2 ]

2 2 2 2 The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. The average density of the m aterial of planet A is is thrice that of planet B. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A and that on the surface of planet B is (1)

2 3

(2)

3 2

(3)

4 3

(4) 6

4.

A small spherical ball ball of mass ’m’ is used as the bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force of tension on its displacemetn is W 1 The same ball is made to roll on a f rictionless table. The work done by the force of normal reaction is W 2 Again the same ball is given a positive charge ’g’ and made to travel with a velocity v in a magnetic field B. The work done by the force experienced by the charged ball is W 3 If the displacements displacements in each case are the same, we have (1) W 1 < W2 < W 3 (2) W 1 > W2 > W3 (3) W 1 = W2 = W 3 (4) that W 1, W2, W3 cannot be related by any equation

5.

The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) adn the potential energy (P.E.) (P.E.) of a particle moving along the x-axis are shown in the graphs below. Which one of the following graphs violates the law of conservation of energy? en ergy?

(1)

(2)

( 3)

(4)

6.

The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute. The emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency (1) 270 Hz (2) 360 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 540 Hz

7.

A tuning fork is excited by strik ing it with a padded hammer. W hat would be the nature of the vibrations executed by the prongs as well as the stem of the fork respectively ? (The reference direction is that of the propagation of the sound wave.) (1) Both vibrate longitudinally (2) Both vibrate transversely (3) The prong vibrate longitudinally longitudinally whereas the stem vibrates transversely (4) The prong vibrate transversely transverse ly whereas whereas the stem vibrates longitudinally longitud inally

Space For Rough Work

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 (www.vibrantacademy.com )

[2] [2]

8.

Find the reading of the am meter in the circuit given below. below.

(1) 9.

V 2R

(2)

3V 4R

(3)

2V 7R

(4)

11V R

Three bulbs with individual individual power ratings of 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively respectively are connected as per the circuit diagram below. Find the amount of heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.

(1) 8 J, 133 J, 4 J (3) 10 J, 0.277 J, 25 J

(2) 120 J, 20 J, 60 J (4) 12 J, 166 J, 5 J

10.

Which of the f ollowing can produce a magnetic field ? (1) Electric charges at rest (2) Electric charges in motion (3) Only by permanent magnets (4) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion

11.

A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing towards the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north and an equal number of negative charges move south.The direction of force on the wire will be

(1) east (3) up, out of the page

(2) down, into the page (4) west



[3] [3]

12.

Match the following : Phenomenon

Reason A. Scattering of light

(i)

Rainbow

(ii)

Twinkling of of st stars

B. Dispersion of of lilight

(iii)

Blue colour of sky

C. Fluc Fluctu tuat atio ion n of the the refraction index in atmosphere layers

(iv) (iv) Adva Advanc ncem emen entt of of sunrise and delay of sunset

D.

(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C (3) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv) - D 13.

14.

Refraction of light

(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D (4) (i) - D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C

A person is suffering from both near sightedness sightedness and far sightedness. sightedness. His spectacles spectacles would be made of (1) two convex lenses with the upper lens having a larger focal length than the lower lens. (2) two concave lenses with the upper lens having a smaller focal length than the lower lens. (3) a concave lens as the upper lens and a convex lens as the lower lens (4) a convex lens as the upper lens and a concave lens as the lower lens The velocity-time graph of an objec t moving along a straight line is shown below :

Which one of the following graphs represents represents the acceleration(a)–time(t) graph for the above motion?

(1)

(2)

(3 )

( 4)



[4] [4]

15.

To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m from the poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one of the following lens may be used to correct the defective vision? (1) A concave lens of 0.5 D (2) A concave lens of 1.0 D (3) A concave lens of 2.0 D (4) A convex lens of 2.0 D

16.

A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5 ms-1 and reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is the net displacement of the ball from its initial position after 1.5 s? (g = 10 ms –2)

17.

(1) 1.25 m (3) 5.00 m (2) 3.75 m (4) 6.25 m A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of water water from the jet is , the diameter of the jet is ‘d and the density of water is ‘  then the force exerted on the wall by the jet of water water is (1)

18.



4

d2



4

d22



(3)

8

d22

(4)



2

d22

Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg k g respectively, respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the figure. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. The force exerted by B on A is

(1) 1.5 N 19.

(2)

(2) 3.0 N

(3) 4.5 N

(4) 6.0 N

A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g mass is immersed partially in water using a spring balance as shown in the figure. If the spring balance reads 300 g, what will be the reading on the platform balance?

(1) 200 g

(2) 300 g

(3) 500 g

(4) 800 g



[5] [5]

20.

An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped on the surface of the earth. How long would it take for the same object to fall through the sam e distance on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius are twice that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance) (1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s (3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s

21.

A source produces sound waves under water. water. Waves travel through water and then into air. air. Which of the following following statements about the frequency(f) and the wavelength() is correct as sound passed from water to air? (1) f remains remains unchanged but  de decreases (2) f remains remains unchanged but  increases (3)  remains unchanged but f de decreases (4)  remains unchanged but f increases increases

22.

The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its original value by stretching it. If its initial resistance is R, what would be its resistance after reduction of the diameter? (1)

23.

R 625

(2)

R

(3) 25 R

25

(4) 625 R

An object of mass ‘m moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘u collides with a heavier mass ‘M ‘M and gets gets embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (M + m) keeps moving in the same direction then which of the given options is true? (1) The kinetic energies before and after collision are same

1 (M + m)u2 2 1 m2u2 (3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to 2 (M (M  m) 1 M2 u2 (4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to 2 (M (M  m) (2) The kinetic energy after collision is

24.

A vessels is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessels is incident on the oil - air interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index of the oil is closed to -

(1) 1.41 25.

(3) 1.63

(2) 1.50

(4) 1.73

A charged particle placed in an electric fields falls from rest rest through a distance d in time t. If the charge on the particle is doubled, the time of fall through the same distance will be (1) 2t

(2) t

( 3)

t 2

(4)

t 2



[6] [6]

PART-B ART-B (CHEMISTRY) (CHEMISTRY) 26.

What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at constant temperature ? (i) Number Numbe r of collisions of oxygen molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases. (ii) Oxygen (O 2) gets converted into ozone (O3). (iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen gas increases. (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) only (4) (i) only

27.

The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6% (mass by volume) at 50º C. When 50 mL of its saturated solution at 50ºC is cooled to 40ºC, (2)4 g of solid solid S separates out.The solubility of S in water water at 40ºC (mass by volume) is : (1) (2)4 % (2) 1(1)9% (3) 26.2% (4) 2(3)8%

28.

What mass of CO 2 will be formed when 6g of carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen ? (1) 38 g (2) 12g (3) 26 g (4) 22 g

29.

The law of conservation of mass is valid for which of the following following ? a. Reactions involving oxidation b.Nuclear reactions. c. Endothermic reactions (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) -particle

(4) (b) only

30.

How many sub-atomic particles are present in an experiment ? No. of protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons (1) 4 0 0 (2) 2 0 2 (3) 2 2 0 (4) 2 2 1

used in Rutherfords scattering

31.

A certain sam ple of element elem ent Z contains 60% of 69Z and 40% of 71Z. What is the relative atomic mass of element Z in this sample ? (1) 69.2 (2) 69.8 (3) 70.0 (4) 70.2

32.

Compound Compou nd A on strong heating in a boiling tube gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue. When the aqueous solution of A is treated with a few drops of sodium hydroxide solution, a white precipitate precipitat e appeared appear ed in the compound A. Identify the cation and anion present in the compound A. (1) Copper (II) and nitrate (2) Lead (II) and chloride (3) Zinc and sulphate (4) Lead (II) and nitrate

33.

A substance A reacts with another substance B to produce the product C and and a gas D. If a mixture of the gas D and amm onia is passed through an aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed. The substances A and B are : (1) HCl and NaOH (2) HCl and Na2CO3 (3) Na and HCl (4) Na2CO3 and H2O

34.

A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which which on heating in air converts to Y.Y reacts with unreacted X to give the metal. The metal is : (1) Hg (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Fe



[7] [7]

35.

Assertion (A) : Nitrate ores are rarely available. Reason (R) : Bond : Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is very high. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is correct and R is false (4) Both A and R are False

36.

The number of structural isomers of the compound having molecular formula C 4H9Br is : (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2

37.

The total number of electrons electron s and the number of electrons involved in the formation of var ious bonds present in one molecule of propanal (C 2H5CHO) are respectively : (1) 32 and 20 (2) 24 and 20 (3) 24 and 18 (4) 32 and 18

38.

Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from Group No. 13 to 17. W hich of the following statments is are true about the elem ents shown in it ? I. V, V, W, X and Z are less electropositive than X. II.V, II.V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z. III. Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W. IV. IV. Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X. V W

Z Y

X

(1) I, II and III 39.

(2) II and III

(3) I and IV

The metal(M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be (1) M2N3 (2) MN (3) M2N

(4) III and IV (4) M3N2

40.

A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following following is a solution? solution? (1) Milk (2) Smoke (3) Brass (4) Face cream

41.

1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in the solution is (1) 12.405 × 1023 (2) 12.405 × 10 22 (3) 6.022 × 1023 (4) 6.022 × 10 22

42.

35

43.

The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution of (1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate (3) (3) sodium sulphate

44.

Cl and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlor ine, in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively respective ly.. If the isotope ratio is reversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine will be : (1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u (3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u (4) ferric chloride

A metal ‘M of moderate reactivity reactivity is is present as its sulphide ‘X. On heating in air, air, ‘X converts into into its oxide, ‘Y and a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y and ‘X together, the metal. ‘M is produced. ‘X and ‘Y respectively are are (1) ‘X ‘X = cuprous cuprous sulp sulphid hide, e, ‘Y ‘Y = cuprou cuprous s oxide oxide (2) ‘X ‘X = cupric cupric sulphid sulphide, e, ‘Y ‘Y = cupric cupric oxide oxide (3) ‘X = sodi sodium um sulp sulphid hide, e, ‘Y = sodiu sodium m oxide oxide (4) ‘X ‘X = calciu calcium m sulphi sulphide, de, ‘Y ‘Y = calc calcium ium oxid oxide e



[8] [8]

45.

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about graphite and diamond? (1) Graphite is smooth and slippery (2) Diamond is good conductor of heat (3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity (4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different

46.

The functional groups present in the following compound are

(1) alcohol, ketone and ester (3) carboxylic acid and ketone 47.

(2) ester and carboxylic acid (4) ester and alcohol

A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in which the alphabets represent the symbols of elements.

Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent compound. (1) RQ2 (2) AT (3) JQ (4) JX2 48.

A compound ‘X reacts with with a compound ‘Y, to produce a colourless and odourless odourless gas. The gas turns lime water milky. milky. When ‘X reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X is (1) C2H4O (3) C2H6O (2) C2H4O2 (4) C2H6O2

49.

The schematic diagram is given below :

Which of the f ollowing is an incorrect incorrect statement? (1) A and E are chemically same (2) A and D are chemically same (3) D and E are chemically same (4) C and E are chemically same 50.

Which of the f ollowing is a feasible reaction? (1) Ba (s) + K2SO4 (a (aq) BaSO4 (aq) + 2K (s) (2) Zn (s) + 2 AgNO 3 (a (aq) Zn(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2Ag (s) (3) Mg (s) (s) + Na Na2SO4 (a (aq) MgSO4 (aq) + 2Na (s) (4) Cu (s) (s) + MgSO MgSO4 (a (aq) CuSO4 (aq) + Mg (s)



[9] [9]

PART-C ART-C (BIOLOGY (BI OLOGY)) 51.

About how much blood is present in the circulatory system of an average person? (1) 1 litre (2) 2 litre (3) 5 litre (4) 10 litre

52.

Which of the following does not help in clotting of blood ? (1) Ca2+ (2) Heparin (3) Prothrombin

(4) Exposure to O2

Which of the f ollowing has least urea ? (1) Renal artery (2) Renal vein

(3) Efferent arteriole

(4) None of these

Hormone which controls amount of urine is : (1) TSH (2) ADH

(3) Adrenallin

(4) Thyroxin

53. 54. 55.

56.

57.

58. 59. 60. 61. 62.

63.

A fossil is a/an – (1) laboratory preserved animal (3) organic relic of the past

(2) dead animal of the past (4) living animal

Vagina Vagina of the female reproductive system is : (1) Primary sex organ (3) organic relic of the past

(2) Accessory sex organ (4) None of these

Plannaria cut into number of pieces will : (1) die (3) develop sex organs

(2) sporulate (4) regenerate to form new individuals

One of the factor r equired for the maturation of erythrocytes is : (1) Vit -D (2) Vit-A (3) Vit-B12

(4) Vit – C

Osculum occurs in : (1) Start fish

(3) Hydra

(4) Sponge

(3) Connection

(4) None of these

(2) Ray fish

Junction of two nerve fibres is called : (1) Synapse (2) Junction

Stomach in vertebrates is the main site for digestion of : (1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (3) Fats

(4) Nucleic acids

Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life consisted of : (1) Water vapours, CH4, NH3 an and Oxygen (2) CO2, NH3, SO2 and CH4 (3) CH4, NH3, H2 an and water vapours (4) CH4, O3, O2 and water vapours Homologous organs are : (1) Dissimi Dissimilar lar origin origin and dissimi dissimilar lar struct structure ures s (3) Simil milar orig rigin with dissimil milar functions

(2) Dissimi Dissimilar lar origin origin but similar similar functi functions ons (4) None

64.

Oxygen carrier or the respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is : (1) Haemocyanin (2) Cytochrome (3) Haemoglobin (4) None of these

65.

Purkinjes fibres are special types of : (1) Muscle fibres located in heart (2) Nerve fibres located in cerebrum (3) Connective tissue fibres joining one bone to another bone (4) Sensory fibres extending from retina into optic nerve



[10]

66.

If a person has lost his mem ory in an accident, the following part of the brain have got injured : (1) Diencephalon (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum

67.

Function of adipose tissue is : (1) Fat storing tissue (3) Acts as shock absorber

(2) Helps in traping heat inside the body (4) All the above

Eukaryotic cell possesses : (1) Chromatin (2) Mesosomes

(3) Nucleoid

68.

(4) Definite nucleus

69.

70S ribosomes, chromatophores, circular DNA, are found in : (1) All eukaryotes (2) All prokaryotes (3) Some prokaryotes (4) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes

70.

Match the column I with column II and select the correct option : (A) Mitochondria (i) W ithout membrane (B) Centriole (ii) Single membrane structure (C) Ribosome (iii) Double membrane structure (D) Lysosome (iv) Smallest cell organelle (A ( A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

71.

Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ? (1) Thylakoids –flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts (2) Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis (3) Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s) (4) Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

72.

Chromosome end is called : (1) Telomere (2) Centromere

73.

(3) Satellite

(4) Metamere

Given below is the diagram of a typical structure of dicotyledonous seeds. In which one of the options all the five parts A, B, C, D and E are correct ?

A (1) Hilum, (2) Hilum (3) Micropyle (4) Hilum

B Micropyle Micropyle Hilum Micropyle

C Radicle, Plumule Plumule Plumule

D Cotyledon Cotyledon Cotyledon Radicle

E Plumule Radicle Radicle Cotyledon



[11]

74.

Variations are : (1) Degree by which which progeny differs from their parents (2) Degree by which progeny similar to their parents (3) Process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny (4) True breeding lines

75.

It was found that sometimes the F 1- had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two. This is the case of: (1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance (3) Codominance (4) Pleiotropism

76.

In dihybrid mendelian cross how many types of genotypes and phenotypes will be obtain : (1) 4 and 9 respectively (2) 9 and 4 respectively (3) 9 and 16 respectively (4) 4 and 16 respectively

77.

In a dihybrid cross, pure hom ozygous plants in F2 generation will be : (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3

(4) 9

Root are feebly developed in : (1) Hydrophytes (2) Mesophytes

(3) Xerophytes

(4) Halophytes

R.Q. in anaerobic respiration is : (1) 0 (2) 5

(3) 1

(4) > 1

78. 79. 80.

How many molecules of oxygen (O 2) are used during the glycolysis of one glucose molecule ? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 36 (4) 8



[12]

PART-D ART-D (MENT ( MENTAL AL ABILITY) 81.

If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and SENSE is coded as FRODT, FRODT, then CLARIFY will be coded as : (1) EDTOJME (2) ZEJSBMD (3) ZEJQBKD (4) ZDKSBKD

82.

Madhu walks 15 metres towards north, then she turns left at 90° and walk 30 metres, then turns right at 90° and walks 25 metres. How H ow far, she is form the starting point and in which direction ? (1) 55 mt., north -east (2) 50 mt., north-west (3) 60 mt., north (4) 50 50 mt., we west

83.

Five friends A,B,C,D and, E are standing in a row facing south but not necess arily in the same order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On the bais of above information, which of the following statement is definitely true ? (1) B is to the left of A (2) B is to the right of E (3) A is second to the left of C (4) D is third to the left of E

Direction (Question 84-88) : A, : A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven seven employe employees es in an organisat organisation ion working working in the department departments s of Administration, Accounts Accounts and Operations. There are at least two em ployees in each department. There are three females, one in each department. Each of seven employees earns different amount. The only bearded employee F works in administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H. works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. 84. 85.

Which of the following is a group of females : (1) GCE (2) GEH

(3) GCH

In which department(s) do three people work ? (1) Operations (2) Accounts

(3) Operation or Account (4) Data inadequate

(4) GHB

86.

W hat will be position of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order ord er of their income ? (1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth

87.

In which of the following department does B work? (1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Administration

88.

(4) Data inadequate

Which of the following statments is definitely true? (1) B earns less than F and H (2) F earns more than B and E (3) B earns more than E and C (4) B earns less than A and H

Direction ( Question 89-91) : Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows : Input : these icons were were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the



[13]

89.

What Wh at will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group” ? (1) (1) a fiv five fol folllowing form form fou four gro grou up th the of of (2) (2) a fiv five fol folllowi owing form form gro group the the of of fou four r (3) (3) a five five fol follow lowing ing form form four four of the the grou group p (4) (4) a fiv five foll follow owiing form form four four grou group p of the the

90.

If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day was ‘back go here people who settle want to, what was the pass code for the Batch V on that day? (1) (1) back back go go here here peo peopl ple e set settl tle e who who wan wantt to to (2) (2) bac back k go her here e peo peopl ple e to to wan wantt sett settle le who who (3) (3) bac back k go go her here e peo peopl ple e set settl tle e to to wan wantt who who (4) (4) cann cannot ot be dete determ rmin ined ed

91.

The pass code for the Batch I on a day was ’he so used to sell the surplus items.What was the input on that day ? (1) ititems surplus th the se sell to to us used so so he he (2) (2) he he ititems surplus th the se sell to to us used so so (3) so so us used to to se sell th the su surplus ititems he he (4) cannot be determined

92.

What is the total number of triangeles and total numbers of squares in the give figure ?

(1) 28 triangles, 10 squares (3) 32 triangles, 10 squares

(2) 28 triangles, 8 squares (4) 32 triangles, 8 squares

93.

A cube whose whose two adjacent faces are coloured is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many of those those small cubes are not coloured at all ? (1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 48

94.

If 54/32 =4, 36/42 = 3, 92/22 = 7 then what is 28/33 = ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4

(4) 9

95.

In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma means ‘Usha is playing cards ‘ ‘Kop Ja ki ma means Asha is playing tennis, ‘ki top sop ho menas ‘they are playing football ; and ‘ po sur kop means ‘cards and tennis. Which word in this language means ‘Asha ? (1) Ja (2) ma (3) kop (4) top

96.

A ship navigating navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit hit by a sea storm and drifts as follows follows : 40 km North 28 km north west 36 km west 52 km south and 29 km south east. The ship had finally drifted in...................direction from its original position. (1) South W est (2) South (3) W est (4) South East



[14]

97.

Four diagrams m arksed A,B,C and D are given below.The one that best illustrates the relationship among three given classes : Women, Teachers, Doctors

(1) A 98.

99.

(3) C

Identify the missing number in the following squence 2,17,52,_________,206 (1) 73 (2) 85 (3) 113

(4) D

(4) 184

Select the missing number

(1) 184 100.

(2) B

(2) 210

(3) 241

(4) 425

Select the missing numbers in the following sequence 3,6,24,30,63,72,?,?,195,210 (1) 117, 123 (2) 120,132 (3) 123,135 (4) 135,144



[15]

ANSWER KEY PHYSICS Ques. Ans Ques. Ans

1 2 16 2

2 3 17 2

3 4 18 2

4 3 19 3

5 4 20 3

6 2 21 1

7 3 22 4

8 2 23 4

9 2 24 4

10 2 25 3

11 2

12 2

13 3

14 1

15 3

34 2 49 4

35 2 50 2

36 3

37 1

38 3

39 2

40 3

59 4 74 1

60 1 75 2

61 1 76 2

62 1 77 1

63 3 78 1

64 3 79 4

65 1 80 1

CHEMISTRY Q u e s. An s Q u e s. An s

26 4 41 1

27 4 42 4

28 4 43 1

29 1 44 1

30 3 45 4

31 2 46 2

32 4 47 1

33 2 48 2

BIOLOGY

Q u e s. An s Q u e s. An s

51 3 66 4

52 4 67 4

53 2 68 4

54 2 69 2

55 3 70 4

56 3 71 1

57 4 72 1

58 3 73 2

MAT MAT

Que s.

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

91

92

93

94

95

Ans.

3

2

4

3

2

2

4

4

1

3

4

3

3

3

1

Que s.

96

97

98

99

100

Ans.

1

3

3

1

2

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. " Ltd. "A-14(A) A-14(A)"" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 (www.vibrantacademy.com)

BLUE PRINT OF ENTRANCE EXAM (Medical) SAMPLE PAPER (COURSE-2018-19) (COURSE-2018-19) MOVING CLASS 11

th

SUBJECT : PHYSICS S.NO.

TOPIC

Q. NO.

TOTAL MARKS

1

KINEMATICS

1,2,14

9

2

NEWTON'S LAW OF MOTION

18,25

6

3

ELECTRICITY

8,9,22

9

4

GRAVITATION

3,20

6

5

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

4,5,16,17,23

15

6

SOUND

6,7,21

9

7

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

10,11

6

8

LIGHT

12,13,15,24

12

9

FLUIDS

19

3

TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS

25

75

MARKS SCORED

SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY S.NO.

TOPIC

Q. NO.

TOTAL MARKS

1

METALS AND NON-METALS

34,35,39,44

12

2

ACID,BASE AND SALT

33,43,48,49

12

3

CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

26,32,50

9

4

PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION

38,47

6

5

MOLE CONCEPT

28,29,41,

9

6

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

30,31,42

9

7

MATTER

27,40

6

8

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

36,37,45,46

12


25

75

MARKS SCORED

SUBJECT : BIOLOGY S.NO.

TOPIC

Q. NO.

TOTAL MARKS

1

CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

51,52,64,65

12

2

EXCRETORY SYSTEM

53,54

6

3

HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

55,62,63,74,75,76,77

21

4

REPRODUCTION

56,57,73

9

5

TISSUE

58,67

6

6

CELL

68,69,70,71,72

15

7

DIVERSITY

59

3

8

ADAPTATION

78

3

9

RESPIRATION

79,80

6

10

CONTROL AND COORDINATION

60,66

6

11

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

61

3


30

90

MARKS SCORED

SUBJECT : MENTAL ABILITY S.NO.

TOPIC

Q. NO.

TOTAL MARKS

1

NUMBER SERIES

98,100

6

2

SEATING ARRANGEMENT

83

3

3

MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

99

3

4

SEQUENTIAL OUTPIT TRACING

89,90,91

9

5

CODING-DECODING

81,94,95

9

6

COUNTING OF FIGURE

92

3

7

CUBES

93

3

8

PUZZLES

84,85,86,87,88

15

9

VENN DIAGRAM

97

3

10

DIRECTION SENSE

82,96

6


20

60

MARKS SCORED

Entrance sample paper for Medical

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